NDA General Knowledge Important Questions: The General Knowledge section in the NDA 2025 exam plays a crucial role in a candidate’s overall performance. It carries 400 marks out of the 600 in the General Ability Test (GAT), making it a high-scoring area for well-prepared students. A strong GK not only increases the chances of clearing the written exam but also plays a vital role in the SSB interview, where awareness of national and international issues is expected from future officers. Topics like History, Geography, Polity, Science, Economy & Current Affairs test a candidate’s awareness of national, international, and defence-related issues, along with knowledge of History, Geography, Polity, and Science. Regular practice in this section can give aspirants a competitive edge and help them move ahead in the final merit list. Focusing on important questions in the General Knowledge section of the NDA 2025 exam helps aspirants prepare more efficiently and strategically. These questions are usually based on frequently asked topics. By practising these high-probability questions, candidates can improve their accuracy, understand the exam pattern, and manage time better during the test. It also boosts confidence by reducing surprises in the actual exam. Since GK has a large number of questions, scoring well here can increase your overall marks and chances of clearing cut-offs. Even if a candidate is average in Maths, a strong GK performance can balance the score. In short, revising important questions increases your chances of scoring higher and securing a better rank in the NDA merit list. This article highlights the most important questions and topics you should focus on for the General Knowledge portion of NDA 2025, along with sample questions and expert tips.
Also Read,
NDA 2025 English Important Questions with Answers, Check NDA English Most Repeated Questions
NDA Exam General Knowledge Syllabus
The GK section of the NDA exam evaluates a candidate’s overall awareness by covering a wide range of topics, including national and international affairs, defence-related updates, History, Geography, Polity, Economics, and General Science. It is designed to assess how well a candidate understands current events as well as fundamental concepts, reflecting their preparedness for a career in the Armed Forces.
| Sections | Topics |
| Physics |
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| Chemistry |
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| General Science |
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| History |
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| Geography |
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| General Knowledge |
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NDA Exam General Knowledge Section Topic-wise Weightage
To prepare well, candidates should know the topic-wise distribution of questions and marks in this section. Understanding which topics are asked more often and carry higher weightage helps aspirants set the right priorities, manage their time effectively, and focus on the most scoring areas. Given below is the expected topic-wise weightage based on previous year trends.
| Subjects | Subject-wise Marks |
Subject-wise Questions |
| Physics | 100 | 25 |
| Chemistry | 60 | 15 |
| General Science | 40 | 10 |
| History | 80 | 20 |
| Geography | 80 | 20 |
| Current Events | 40 | 10 |
| Total | 400 | 100 |
NDA 2025 General Knowledge Important Questions
To help aspirants focus their preparation, it’s important to identify and practise the most frequently asked and high-weightage questions. Studying these important questions not only improves accuracy but also builds confidence for the actual exam.
NDA Indian Polity Important Questions
Q.No.1: Which of the following are incorrectly matched?
(i) Articles 14-18: Right to Equality
(ii) Articles 23 and 24: Right to Freedom of Religion
(iii) Articles 25-28: Right against Exploitation
(iv) Articles 29 and 30: Cultural and Education Rights
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (iii) and (iv)
C. (i) and (iv)
D. (ii) and (iii)
Answer: (ii) and (iii)
The correct answer is D.
Q.No.2: Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
(i) Under article 39(d) in Directive Principle of the state policy under part IV of the Constitution, equal pay for equal work is provided for both men and women.
(ii) The Constitution of India defines backward classes.
A. Only (i)
B. Only (ii)
C. Both of these
D. None of these
Answer: Only (i)
The correct answer is A.
Q.No.3: Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
(i) The Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of a consolidated fund and a public account under article 266 and a contingency fund for each state under article 267.
(ii) Disbursements of public accounts are not subject to vote of Parliament.
A. Only (i)
B. Only (ii)
C. Both (i) and (ii)
D. Neither (i) nor (ii)
Answer: Neither (i) nor (ii)
The correct answer is D.
Q.No.4: Which article states that 'No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment’?
A. Fundamental Right, Article 24
B. Fundamental Right, Article 54
C. Fundamental Right, Article 330
D. Fundamental Right, Article 368
Answer: Fundamental Right, Article 24
The correct answer is A.
Q.No.5: Which of the following is a fundamental right under article 32?
A. Right of Freedom
B. Right to Constitutional Remedies
C. Right against Exploitation
D. Right to Equality
Answer: Right to Constitutional Remedies
The correct answer is B.
Q.No.6: Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(i) As per the 73rd Amendment Act, the Panchayat exists as a 3-tier system.
(ii) These 3 tiers are Village Panchayat, District Panchayat and Intermediate Panchayat.
(iii) The Intermediate Panchayat stands between the village and district Panchayats in states where the population is less than 15 lakhs.
A. Only (i)
B. Only (ii)
C. (i) and (ii)
D. Only (iii)
Answer: (i) and (ii)
The correct answer is C.
Q.No.7: Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
(i) The 7th Amendment Act, 1956 provides for composition of the House of the people and re-adjustment after every census.
(ii) The 30th Amendment Act, 1973 provides for raising the upper limit for the representation of states in the Lok Sabha from 500 to 525.
A. Only (i)
B. Only (ii)
C. Both (i) and (ii)
D. Neither (i) nor (ii)
Answer: Only (ii)
The correct answer is B.
NDA History Important Questions
Q.No.8: Who gave the title of ‘Sardar' to Vallabh Bhai Patel?
A. The women of Bardoli village
B. Mahatma Gandhi
C. The revolutionaries of Gujrat
D. The Gujrat goverment
Answer: The women of Bardoli village
The correct answer is A.
Q.No.9: Who was the Viceroy at the time of the Shimla Conference of June 1945?
A. Lord Waverly
B. Lord Warren Hastings
C. Lord Wavell
D. Lord William Armstrong
Answer: Lord Wavell
The correct answer is C.
Q.No.10:Who collaborated with Raja Ram Mohan Roy to establish Hindu College at Calcutta?
A. Keshab Chandra Sen and Henry Louis Vivian Derozio
B. Henry Louis Vivian Derozio and Alexander Duff
C. Alexander Duff and David Hare
D. David Hare and Keshab Chandra Sen
Answer: Alexander Duff and David Hare
The correct answer is C.
Q.No.11: Whose recommendation is mandatory in order to introduce a money bill in the Lok Sabha?
A. The President
B. Union Finance Minister
C. Leader of the Lok Sabha
D. Union Finance Minister
Answer: The President
The correct answer is A.
Q.No.12: Four features with respect to the Act of 1858 are stated as:
I. It transferred power from the British crown to the British East India Company.
II. The post of Secretary of State for India was created.
III. The number of European soldiers in the army was decreased.
IV. The number of Indian soldiers in the army was increased
Which of the given features are stated incorrectly?
A. I and III
B. II and III
C. I, II and III
D. I, III and IV
Answer: I, III and IV
The correct answer is D.
Q.No.13: “Hindu”, the Persian name of the Indus river, was first used by the
A. Arabs
B. Greeks
C. Romans
D. Chinese
Answer: Arabs
The correct answer is A.
Q.No.14: Which of the following is a part of Budhdhist literature?
A. Acarangasutra
B. Brihatkalpasutra
C. Sutrakritanga
D. Therigatha
Answer: Therigatha
The correct answer is D.
Q.No.15: Which of the following does not have an influence on the Mughal painting style?
A. Rajasthani
B. Kangra
C. Kalighata
D. Pahari
Answer: Kalighata
The correct answer is C.
Q.No.16: Under whose reign did the Mongols invade India during the reign of Iltutmish?
A. Balban
B. Babar
C. Genghis Khan
D. Feroz Tughlaq
Answer: Genghis Khan
The correct answer is C.
NDA Geography Important Questions
Q.No.17: Which of the following soils is not formed by the silt brought up by the rivers?
A. Bhabar
B. Bangar
C. Regur
D. Khadar
Answer: Regur
The correct answer is C.
Q.No.18: Celestial body in Mesosphere which has entered the Earth's atmosphere is called
A. Comet
B. Asteroid
C. Meteor
D. Meteorite
Answer: Meteor
The correct answer is C.
Q.No.19: Dense, shiny coal that gives clean flame at burning and contains highest content of carbon is
A. Lignite
B. Peat
C. Bituminous coal
D. Anthracite
Answer: Anthracite
The correct answer is D.
Q.No.20: Which of the following statements is/are correct about the 'Roaring Forties'?
(i) Roaring Forties blow in 40°S to 50°S.
(ii) They blow with great strength and constancy.
(iii) They blow in Northern and the Southern hemisphere.
(iv) Rain and overcast skies are generally their outcome.
A. (i), (ii) and (iv)
B. (ii) and (iii)
C. Only (iii)
D. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (i), (ii) and (iv)
The correct answer is A.
Q.No.21: The core of the Earth below mantle is made up of which of the following?
A. Silicon and Aluminium
B. Nickle and Iron
C. Chromium and Iron
D. Nickle and Aluminium
Answer: Nickle and Iron
The correct answer is B.
Q.No.21: Which of the following crops is a Rabi crop?
A. Cotton
B. Groundnut
C. Maize
D. Mustard
Answer: Mustard
The correct answer is D.
Q.No.22: Which of the following is/are incorrectly matched?
| (i) | Gopinath Beach | Gujarat |
| (ii) | Lawsons Bay Beach | Karnataka |
| (iii) | Devbagh Beach | Andhra Pradesh |
| (iv) | Srinquerium Beach | Goa |
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (iii) and (iv)
C. (i) and (iv)
D. (ii) and (iii)
Answer: (ii) and (iii)
The correct answer is D.
Q.No.23: Which of the following is not found in Chhattisgarh?
A. Tin
B. Dolomite
C. Bauxite
D. Limestone
Answer: Tin
The correct answer is A.
Q.No.24: Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
(i) Nanda Devi peak forms a part of Kumaon Himalayas.
(ii) It is located in Pauri district of Uttaranchal.
A. Only (i)
B. Only (ii)
C. None of these
D. Both of these
Answer: Only (ii)
The correct answer is B.
Q.No.25: Which river is known as the Ganga of South India?
A. Krishna
B. Cauvery
C. Saraswati
D. Mahanadi
Answer: Cauvery
The correct answer is B.
Q.No.26: Bhima and Tungabhadra are
A. Rivers
B. Tributaries
C. Dis-tributaries
D. Lakes
Answer: Tributaries
The correct answer is B.
Q.No.27: The process of raising animals and growing crops on the same farm is called
A. Arable Farming
B. Crop Rotation
C. Mixed Farming
D. Shifting Cultivation
Answer: Mixed Farming
The correct answer is C.
Q.No.28: The percentage of radiant energy reflected by a surface in called
A. Albedo
B. Polar see-saw
C. Global Dimming
D. Irradiance
Answer: Albedo
The correct answer is A.
NDA Chemistry Important Questions
Q.No.29: Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Since iodine is lustrous, it is a metal
B. All existing metals have a high melting point
C. All metals are solid except mercury, which is a liquid
D. Since sodium and potassium are not hard, they are not metals
Answer: One physical property of metals is that they are solids. However, an exception exists. Mercury is the only metal which exists as a liquid at room temperature.
The correct answer is C.
Q.No.30: Which of the following statements cannot be attributed to non-metals?
A. Non-metals have low a density.
B. Non-metals have a comparatively low boiling point.
C. Non-metals are sonorous in nature.
D. Non-metals have a comparatively low melting point.
Answer: Non-metals are not sonorous in nature, i.e., they do not make a ringing sound when struck by some object.
The correct answer is C.
Q.No.31: Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Iron pipes are coated with zinc by the process of galvanization
B. Formation of manure from cow dung is a physical change
C. Cutting a log of wood is a chemical change
D. Chemical formula for iron and rust is the same
Answer: The process of depositing a layer of zinc over iron articles is called galvanization. Iron pipes are coated with zinc to prevent rusting.
The correct answer is A.
Q.No.32: Which of the following methods is used to separate a mixture of sand, sugar, and water?
A. Filtration and evaporation
B. Sedimentation and filtration
C. Evaporation and condensation
D. Sedimentation and decantation
Answer: When a mixture of sand, sugar, and water is allowed to stand for some time, sand being heavier and insoluble in water settles down at the bottom. Sugar is soluble in water. Thus, it gets dissolved in water. By the process of filtration, we can separate sand from sugar dissolved in water. Then, by the process of evaporation, the dissolved sugar can be obtained.
The correct answer is A.
Q.No.33: Which of the following statements represents the law of conservation of mass?
A. Atoms of a given element are identical in mass.
B. Atoms of different elements have different masses.
C. Mass can neither be created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction.
D. In a chemical substance, elements are always present in definite proportions by mass.
Answer: The law of conservation of mass states that mass can neither be created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction. Thus, the total mass before a reaction is equal to the total mass after the reaction.
The correct answer is C.
Q.No.34: The observations noted down upon burning three substances P, Q, and R are given as:
I. Substance P burns quickly, producing heat and light.
II. Substance Q burns in room temperature on its own.
III. Substance R burns with the evolution of heat, light, and sound.
Which of the following statements regarding the given information is correct?
A. Substances P and Q are undergoing rapid combustion whereas R is undergoing explosion.
B. Substances P and R are undergoing spontaneous combustion whereas Q is undergoing rapid combustion.
C. Substance P is undergoing rapid combustion, Q is undergoing spontaneous combustion while R is undergoing explosion.
D. Substance P is undergoing spontaneous combustion, Q is undergoing rapid combustion while R is undergoing explosion.
Answer: Substances which burn rapidly and produce heat and light are said to undergo rapid combustion. The substances that burn on their own at room temperature are said to undergo spontaneous combustion. The substances which burn with the evolution of heat, light, and sound are said to undergo explosion.
The correct answer is C.
Q.No.35: The process of conduction
A. generally occurs in gases
B. requires a medium for heat transfer
C. is a measure of the hotness of solids
D. occurs when water is heated in a beaker
Answer: The process of conduction, which occurs in solids, involves heat transfer from the hotter end to the cooler end. The transfer of heat by this process always requires a medium. Thus, conduction is not possible in vacuum.
The correct answer is B.
Q.No.36: Water is used to extinguish fire because it
A. has a very low freezing point
B. lowers the ignition temperature of the burning substance
C. decomposes on heating to give oxygen and hydrogen which are not combustible substances
D. cools the burning substance so that its temperature becomes lower than its ignition temperature
Answer: Ignition temperature is the minimum temperature at which a substance starts burning. When water is poured over a burning substance, it absorbs heat from the substance and gets converted to steam. As a result, the temperature of the substance falls below the ignition temperature and it stops burning.
The correct answer is D.
Q.No.37: Which of the following methods is not a method to prevent rusting of iron articles?
A. Application of grease on iron articles
B. Application of paint on iron articles
C. Application of a coating of zinc on iron articles
D. Application of a coating of copper on iron articles
Answer: Applying a coating of copper on iron articles does not prevent them from rusting. Copper is a metal which also undergoes corrosion. Therefore, it cannot prevent the rusting of iron articles.
The correct answer is D.
Q.No.38: Which of the following mixtures does not show the ‘Tyndall effect’?
A. Milk
B. Smoke
C. Soda water
D. Milk of magnesia
Answer: Soda water is a homogeneous mixture of carbon dioxide and water. Thus, it is a solution. Solutions do not show the ‘Tyndall effect’. Hence, soda water does not show the ‘Tyndall effect’.
The correct answer is C.
Q.No.39: Covalent compounds are soluble in
A. methanol
B. ammonia
C. benzene
D. water
Answer: Covalent compounds are insoluble in polar solvents and more soluble in nonpolar solvents. Since benzene is a nonpolar solvent, covalent compounds are soluble in it.
The correct answer is C.
NDA Biology Important Questions
Q.No.40: Plant and animal cells are structurally different from each other. Which cell structure is present in plant cells but absent in animal cells?
A. Cell wall
B. Golgi body
C. Plasma membrane
D. Endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: Cell wall is present only in plant cells. It provides structural strength to plant cells. It is made of cellulose.
The correct answer is A.
Q.No.41: Which of the following pairs of organs is homologous?
A. Fins of fishes and flippers of dolphins
B. Forelimbs of frogs and lizards
C. Wings of birds and insects
D. Wings of bats and birds
Answer: Homologous organs are organs that have the same basic structure though they have become modified in the process of evolution to perform different functions. The limbs of various vertebrates such as mammals, birds, reptiles, and amphibians have the same basic structure as they have been derived from a common ancestor.
The correct answer is B.
Q.No.42: In few organisms, the male and the female gametes unite outside the body. This method of reproduction is termed as external fertilisation. Which of the following organisms exhibits external fertilisation?
A. Fish
B. Snake
C. Butterfly
D. Earthworm
Answer: Male and female fishes release the sperms and eggs into water. Fertilization occurs when the male and female gametes interact in the aquatic medium.
The correct answer is A.
Q.No.43: Saprophytic mode of nutrition is a type of nutrition in which organisms feed on
A. other organisms by living on their body
B. dead and decaying matter
C. insects
D. plants
Answer: Saprophytic mode of nutrition is a type of nutrition in which organisms obtain nutrients in the solution form from dead and decaying matter.
The correct answer is B.
Q.No.44: Among the terms (a) Recycle, (b) Replace, (c) Reuse, (d) Recover, (e) Regenerate, (f) Reduce, and (g) Restructure, which terms comprise the 4 R’s
in the 4R principle that is used to protect the environment?
A. (a), (b), (d) and (e)
B. (a), (c), (d) and (f)
C. (b), (c), (d) and (e)
D. (b), (d), (e) and (f)
Answer: The four ‘R’s in the 4R principle stand for Reduce, Reuse, Recycle, and Recover.
The correct answer is B.
NDA Physics Important Questions
Q.No.45: Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. A screw has both circular and linear motion.
B. When a truck moves, the wheels have rectilinear as well as circular motion.
C. A rolling ball has rectilinear as well as rotational motion.
D. A seesaw has oscillatory as well as rectilinear motion.
Answer: The motion of a seesaw is a to-and-fro or up-down motion. Therefore, the motion of a seesaw is oscillatory motion only.
The correct answer is D.
Q.No.46: Three statements are given as:
I. Acharged glass rod attracts a charged plastic straw.
II. Acharged balloon repels a charged plastic refill.
III. A charged comb attracts a compass needle.
Which of the given statements is/are incorrect?
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I and III
D. Both II and III
Answer: When a glass rod and a plastic straw are charged by rubbing them against a cloth, they acquire charges of the opposite nature. Since unlike charges attract each other, the charged glass rod attracts the charged plastic straw. Hence, statement I is correct.
When a balloon and a plastic refill are charged by rubbing them against a cloth, then they acquire charges of the opposite nature. Since unlike charges attract each other, the charged balloon attracts the charged plastic refill. Hence, statement II is incorrect.
The compass needle is a bar magnet. It can be attracted towards a magnet or a magnetic object. A charged comb is neither a magnet nor a magnetic object. Hence, a charged comb cannot attract a compass needle. Hence, statement III is incorrect.
The correct answer is D.
Q.No.47: A bird flies from one tree to another tree and then returns to the first tree. It repeats this process nine more times in 10 minutes. If its average speed is 1 m/s, then what is the distance between the two trees?
A. 20 m
B. 10 m
C. 30 m
D. 5 m
Answer: The distance between the two trees is 30 m.
The correct answer is C.
Q.No.48: Which of the following objects does not possess periodic motion?
A. Strings of a guitar
B. Pendulum of a clock
C. Wheels of a moving car
D. Gong of a bell
Answer: Periodic motion is one in which the object repeats its motion after regular intervals of time. Motion of the wheels of a car along a road is not an example of periodic motion because this motion does not repeat itself after regular intervals.
The correct answer is C.
Q.No.49: Friction acts between two bodies because of the
A. irregularities present in their surfaces that are not in contact
B. smoothness present in their surfaces that are not in contact
C. irregularities present in their surfaces that are in contact
D. smoothness present in their surfaces that are in contact
Answer: Friction is caused due to the irregularities that are present between the surfaces of two bodies when the surfaces are in contact with each other.
The correct answer is C.
Q.No.50: Which of the following statements is correct?
A. The average speed of a vehicle can be negative.
B. A speedometer reveals the instantaneous speed of a vehicle.
C. Magnitudes of average velocity and average speed are always equal.
D. The motion of a vehicle is uniform when it covers equal distances in unequal time intervals.
Answer: The reading shown by the speedometer of a vehicle is the speed of the vehicle at a particular moment. This speed is known as the instantaneous speed.
The correct answer is B.
Q.No.51: The rainbow is a natural phenomenon that appears in the rainy sky. It is caused by the
A. reflection of sunlight by rain droplets
B. refraction of sunlight by rain droplets
C. scattering and refraction of sunlight by rain droplets
D. dispersion and internal reflection of sunlight by rain droplets
Answer: The rainbow is formed because of the dispersion and internal reflection of white light by atmospheric water droplets.
The correct answer is D.
NDA Current Affairs Important Questions
Q.No.52: What was the codename for the nationwide civil defence mock drill conducted in India on 7 May 2025?
A. Operation Suraksha
B. Operation Abhyaas
C. Operation Raksha
D. Operation Prahari
Answer: Operation Abhyaas
The correct answer is B.
Q.No.53: Which government body organized the 2025 India civil defence mock drill?
A. Ministry of Defence
B. National Security Council
C. Ministry of Home Affairs & NDMA
D. Defence Research and Development Organisation
Answer: Ministry of Home Affairs & NDMA
The correct answer is C.
Q.No.54: What was the notable milestone for India’s economy reported in May 2025?
A. Became world 5th largest
B. Surpassed Japan to become 4th largest
C. Reached $5 trillion GDP
D. Entered top 10 in Human Development Index
Answer: Surpassed Japan to become 4th largest
The correct answer is B.
Q.No.55: Which state signed an MoU with Hockey India to host the FIH Men’s Junior World Cup 2025?
A. Kerala
B. Karnataka
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Maharashtra
Answer: Tamil Nadu
The correct answer is C.
Q.No.56: Who was the CEO of NITI Aayog as of May 2025?
A. Amitabh Kant
B. Parameswaran Iyer
C. B.V.R. Subrahmanyam
D. Rajiv Kumar
Answer: B.V.R. Subrahmanyam
The correct answer is C.
Q.No.57: Who became NATO’s 31st member in 2024?
A. Finland
B. Austria
C. Sweden
D. Ukraine
Answer: Sweden
The correct answer is C.
Q.No.58: The One World, One Family, One Future was the theme of which international summit?
A. BRICS Summit 2023
B. G20 Summit 2023
C. UNGA 2023
D. SCO Summit 2023
Ans: G20 Summit 2023
The correct answer is B.
Q.No.59: ISRO’s Aditya-L1 Mission is related to study of?
A. Moon
B. Mars
C. Sun
D. Black Hole
Answer: Sun
The correct answer is C.
How to Prepare for the General Knowledge Section of the NDA Exam?
- Start with NCERT Books of Class 6–12, build strong basics in History, Geography, Polity, Economics, and Science.
- Read newspapers and monthly magazines (Pratiyogita Darpan, Manorama Yearbook).
- Prepare topic-wise notes for quick revision of important facts, dates, and events.
- Focus on topics like Current Affairs, Geography, Polity, and General Science, where questions are frequently asked.
- Revise GK for at least 1 hour daily to retain facts.
- Regular study and revision are more effective than last-minute cramming.
NDA Exam Best Books For General Knowledge
- Lucent’s General Knowledge
- NCERT Class 9 & 10 – Science, Social Science, Geography, History
- NCERT Class 11 & 12- Physics and Chemistry
- Manorama Yearbook (for current affairs and general updates)
- Pratiyogita Darpan Magazine (monthly)